> that's fine, but the fundamental question is: where is the moral
> boundary of the power that the copyright license gives? The FSF seems to
Assuming a democratic state then the laws of the land ought to reflect the
'general will' (if you believe Rousseau anyway). They should thus define
the boundary ['derivative work' generally ] according to the general good
and with the consent of the people.
> hardware that is associated with our software, so what? If a
> jurisdiction allows the controlling of various aspects of movie theaters
> that happen to play copyrighted movies, does it make it morally right?
Does that question not suppose some positivist absolute morality ? I
suspect many would argue that it is moral to do so if the end goal of the
controls is moral. You might also want to apply the tests in Fuller's
Internal Morality of Law ?
I'm not sure Philosophy is on topic for l/k however 8)
Alan
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